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R&O

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which of the following is NOT a form of media advertising?
a.
television
b.
radio
c.
magazines
d.
sales promotions
e.
newspapers
 

 2. 

Which term is preferred by most marketing practitioners to refer to the collection of advertising, sales promotions, public relations, event marketing, and other communication devices?
a.
marketing promotion
b.
promotion
c.
sales promotion
d.
marketing communications
e.
integrated marketing communications
 

 3. 

Which of the following terms serves as a summary means for describing all forms of marketing focus?
a.
product
b.
brand
c.
communication
d.
promotion
e.
integration
 

 4. 

Which of the following terms is used to mean any message medium capable of reaching target customers and presenting the brand in a favorable light?
a.
touch point
b.
contact
c.
intersection
d.
touch point and contact
e.
touch point, contact, and intersection
 

 5. 

Karen is attempting to put into words the key idea that encapsulates what her company’s brand is intended to stand for in its target market’s mind. Karen is writing a ____.
a.
relationship statement
b.
creative brief
c.
positioning statement
d.
contact brief
e.
touch point
 

 6. 

The fact that it costs five to 10 times more to land a new customer than to keep a current customer has been compared to a(n) ____.
a.
clogged drain
b.
leaky bucket
c.
sand castle
d.
ice sculpture
e.
bee hive
 

 7. 

The ultimate objective of IMC is to ____.
a.
start with the customer or prospect
b.
move people to action
c.
carefully select those tools that are most appropriate for the communications objective at hand
d.
use as many communications outlets as possible to reach the target audience
e.
speak with a single voice
 

 8. 

Which of the following is NOT a change in marketing communication practices?
a.
increased reliance on outside suppliers, or specialized services
b.
reduced dependence on mass media advertising
c.
increased reliance on highly targeted communication methods
d.
heightened demands on suppliers
e.
increased efforts to assess communications’ return on investment
 

 9. 

When counseling its clients in selecting appropriate marcom tools, McCann Worldgroup uses an approach that requires that the brand marketer first identify the goal(s) a marcom program is designed to accomplish and then identify the best way to allocate the marketer’s budget. What is this approach known as?
a.
inside-out
b.
bottom-up
c.
media-neutral
d.
media-centric
e.
goal oriented
 

 10. 

Joan Kaufman is a senior manager of a large conglomerate. She decides how much money is allocated to each subunit. This is an example of ____ budgeting.
a.
top-down
b.
bottom-up
c.
bottom-up/top-down
d.
top-down/bottom-up
e.
hierarchy
 

 11. 

The most frequently used budgeting method is ____.
a.
top-down (TD)
b.
bottom-up (BU)
c.
top-down/bottom-up/top-down (TDBUTD)
d.
bottom-up/top-down (BUTD)
e.
top-down/bottom-up (TDBU)
 

 12. 

Allison is trying to determine how much to allocate for advertising and how much to allocate for promotions during the next year. Which implementation decision is Allison making?
a.
mixing elements
b.
creating messages
c.
selecting media
d.
establishing momentum
e.
targeting
 

 13. 

Harvey is a brand manager for a national brand of soft drinks. He is making the implementation decisions in the marcom decision process, and he wants a marcom tool that is most capable of directly affecting consumer behavior. Which tool should he use?
a.
advertising
b.
sales promotion
c.
publicity
d.
events
e.
point-of-purchase display
 

 14. 

Program evaluation is accomplished by ____.
a.
developing a budget that is based on marcom objectives and includes an optimum balance of advertising and promotion
b.
measuring the results of marcom efforts against the objectives that were established
c.
collecting data on consumers’ demographics and lifestyles
d.
constructing a database of information on the target market, economic conditions, and competitors’ marcom strategies
e.
comparing budgeted marcom expenditures against share-of-voice
 

 15. 

A ____ is everything that one company’s particular offering stands for in comparison to competitors’ offerings.
a.
trademark
b.
logo
c.
symbol
d.
brand
e.
sign
 

 16. 

Tide laundry detergent is a well known brand that sells for approximately $8.00 for a 64 ounce bottle, and Procter & Gamble usually sells 2 million of these sizes each year. An average private label store brand costs $6.00 for the same size, and typically 1 million are sold each year. What is Tide’s revenue premium?
a.
$2.00
b.
$1 million
c.
$6 million
d.
$10 million
e.
$16 million
 

 17. 

____ refers to the extent to which a brand name comes to mind when consumers think about a particular product category and the ease with which the name is evoked.
a.
Brand image
b.
Brand awareness
c.
Brand loyalty
d.
Brand preference
e.
Brand knowledge
 

 18. 

The basic dimension of brand equity is ____.
a.
brand image
b.
brand preference
c.
brand tolerance
d.
brand insistence
e.
brand awareness
 

 19. 

Bill is given a list of brands of shaving products by a researcher and is asked to mark all those that he is aware of. Which level of awareness is this assessing?
a.
recall
b.
recognition
c.
aided recall
d.
unaided recall
e.
positive awareness
 

 20. 

Which of the following is NOT an approach by which brand equity is enhanced?
a.
brand awareness approach
b.
speak-for-itself approach
c.
message-driven approach
d.
leveraging approach
e.
all of the above are approaches by which brand equity is enhanced
 

 21. 

In which approach to enhancing brand equity do marcom practitioners attempt to build advantageous associations through creative, attention getting, and believable messages?
a.
speak-for-itself approach
b.
message-driven approach
c.
leveraging approach
d.
shotgun approach
e.
cast-a-wide-net approach
 

 22. 

Which marcom tool is an especially important instrument of meaning transfer?
a.
sales promotion
b.
personal selling
c.
advertising
d.
public relations
e.
frequency programs
 

 23. 

Which of the following is a source by which brand meaning can be leveraged?
a.
other brands
b.
places
c.
things
d.
people
e.
all of the above
 

 24. 

Which of the following is a motivation underlying the increased focus on measuring marketing performance?
a.
greater demands for accountability on the marketing function from the CEO, the Board, and other executives
b.
the imperative for the CMO to get better at what they do
c.
required by the IRS to report the gains from marketing investment
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 25. 

Specific measures that are used to judge marcom effectiveness are also called ____.
a.
variables
b.
metrics
c.
coefficients
d.
models
e.
variances
 

 26. 

Why is it difficult to gain agreement on a suitable system for measuring marcom performance?
a.
People are uncooperative.
b.
People in other disciplines do not understand marketing and marketing communications
c.
Individuals from different backgrounds and with varied organizational interests often see the “world” differently or operate with varying ideas of what best indicates suitable performance.
d.
There is so little difference among the measures that it is difficult for individuals outside of marketing to understand them.
e.
If it isn’t in terms of dollars, others in the organization don’t even want to look at it.
 

 27. 

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding marketing-mix modeling?
a.
In order to employ marketing-mix modeling, a relatively long series of longitudinal data (i.e., for a two-year period) is required.
b.
Marketing-mix modeling employs well known statistical techniques (e.g., multivariate regression analysis) to estimate the effects that the various marcom elements have in driving sales volume.
c.
Parameter estimates indicate the individual effects the various marcom elements have on sales.
d.
Managers learn from such analysis which elements are outperforming others and can use this information to shift budgets from program element to element.
e.
Once the model is estimated, results can be generalized to other situations.
 

 28. 

A variable that influences the awareness class would include ____.
a.
free samples
b.
price discounts
c.
demographics
d.
product satisfaction
e.
all of the above
 

 29. 

Aerobics was initially considered a woman’s sport, but societal attitudes toward aerobics have changed and many health clubs are now offering co-ed aerobics classes. The change in societal attitudes toward men engaging in aerobics represents an increased ____ for this activity.
a.
relative advantage
b.
trialability
c.
compatibility
d.
observability
e.
complexity
 

 30. 

In quantifying the Adoption-Influencing Characteristics, two factors are rated.  These are ____.
a.
relative advantage and trialability
b.
perceived value and risk
c.
importance and evaluation
d.
risk and reward
e.
costs and benefits
 

 31. 

A warm color that has a cheerful effect on consumers is ____.
a.
red
b.
orange
c.
yellow
d.
white
e.
blue
 

 32. 

Michelle is the vice-president of marketing for a cosmetics company. If she wants the package for a new brand of after shave to evoke feelings of strength and confidence, she should include ____.
a.
pictures of birds
b.
triangles
c.
horizontal lines
d.
vertical lines
e.
slanted lines
 

 33. 

A foil package conveys ____.
a.
cheapness
b.
masculinity
c.
prestige
d.
durability
e.
femininity
 

 34. 

The four features of the VIEW model that can be used to evaluate a particular package are ____.
a.
visibility, innovation, emotional appeal, and workability
b.
visibility, information, emotional appeal, and workability
c.
visibility, information, effectiveness, and workability
d.
visibility, information, emotional appeal, and warehousing
e.
visibility, innovation, effectiveness, and workability
 

 35. 

The extent to which a package is environmentally friendly is an example of ____.
a.
visibility
b.
information
c.
emotional appeal
d.
workability
e.
gestalt
 

 36. 

Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of the package design process?
a.
determine communication priorities
b.
specify brand-positioning objectives
c.
conduct a product category analysis
d.
develop a hypothesis
e.
perform a competitive analysis
 

 37. 

Bob and Sue are a young, newly married couple without any children. They have a positive, upwardly mobile perspective and expect to benefit from their own skills and abilities. They are environmentalists and enjoy outdoor activities in their free time. In terms of Yankelovich’s MindBase segments, which best describes Bob and Sue?
a.
Up & Comers
b.
Aspiring Achievers
c.
Realists
d.
New Traditionalists
e.
Individualists
 

 38. 

James is driven by technology and success at work. He is single and finds little time for social interests and prefers to focus on climbing the career ladder. Which of Yankelovich’s MindBase segments best describes James?
a.
Up & Comers
b.
Aspiring Achievers
c.
Individualists
d.
New Traditionalists
e.
Renaissance Masters
 

 39. 

Which of the following is NOT a primary motivations dimension of the VALS psychographics classification model?
a.
pursuit of ideals
b.
resources
c.
need for achievement
d.
drive to self-express
e.
all of the above are primary motivation dimensions in the model
 

 40. 

Alan is 26 years old. He exhibits high energy levels, which he devotes to physical fitness and social activities. In terms of the VALS framework, Alan is a(n) ____.
a.
Innovator
b.
Believer
c.
Achiever
d.
Striver
e.
Experiencer
 

 41. 

Which VALS group is the most likely to structure their social lives around their family, place of worship, and work?
a.
Innovators
b.
Thinkers
c.
Achievers
d.
Strivers
e.
Makers
 

 42. 

Terron is a young professional that always attends the latest movie, frequents the newest nightclubs, and has the most up-to-date electronic equipment. To which PRIZMNE cluster would Terron most likely belong?
a.
Innovators
b.
Bohemian Mix
c.
White Picket Fences
d.
Upper Crust
e.
Big Fish, Small Pond
 

 43. 

Which PRIZMNE cluster represents a stereotypical American household of previous generations?
a.
Bohemian Mix
b.
White Picket Fences
c.
Suburban Pioneers
d.
Up & Comers
e.
Traditionalists
 

 44. 

Which country has the greatest population?
a.
United States
b.
India
c.
Russia
d.
China
e.
Germany
 

 45. 

Which is the largest ancestral group of U.S. residents?
a.
Irish
b.
Swedish
c.
Italian
d.
African American
e.
German
 

 46. 

Social networking sites such as MySpace and Facebook have become particularly effective venues for reaching and influencing the consumer behavior of ____.
a.
children
b.
tweens
c.
parents
d.
older individuals
e.
teens and young adults
 

 47. 

Marian is uneducated, frustrated with her life, and seeks security and status. Marian would fit into the Generation X category known as ____.
a.
Showers
b.
Bystanders
c.
Yup & Comers
d.
Playboys
e.
Drifters
 

 48. 

Since the 1950s, households in the U.S. have ____ in number, ____ in size, and ____ in character.
a.
increased/grown/changed
b.
stayed about the same/increased/stayed the same
c.
decreased/increased/remained similar
d.
grown/shrunk/changed
e.
increased/increased/changed
 

 49. 

Which is the largest minority group in the United States?
a.
African Americans
b.
Asian Americans
c.
Jews
d.
Hispanics
e.
Muslim Americans
 

 50. 

Which group has the highest incomes and most prestigious jobs of any segment of American society?
a.
Whites
b.
African Americans
c.
Hispanic Americans
d.
Muslim Americans
e.
Asian Americans
 

 51. 

Exposure occurs when ____.
a.
consumers come in contact with the marketer’s message
b.
consumers become aware of the message
c.
consumers are impacted by the message
d.
consumers store information in long-term memory
e.
consumers agree with the message
 

 52. 

The mere fact of being repeatedly exposed to a message increases the likelihood that the receiver will judge that message to be true is known as the ____.
a.
mere repetition effect
b.
mere exposure effect
c.
exposure paradox
d.
truth effect
e.
repeat effect
 

 53. 

A brand’s ____ represents the key feature, benefit, or image that it stands for in the target audience’s collective mind.
a.
logo
b.
name
c.
positioning
d.
placement
e.
semiotics
 

 54. 

Fundamental to the concept and practice of positioning is the idea of ____.
a.
meaning
b.
target marketing
c.
signs
d.
symbols
e.
referents
 

 55. 

When positioning their brands, marketing communicators draw meaning ____ and transfer that meaning to their brands.
a.
from the dictionary
b.
objectively
c.
subjectively
d.
from consumers
e.
from the culturally constituted world
 

 56. 

A good positioning statement should satisfy which of the following?
a.
reflect a brand’s competitive advantage
b.
motivate consumers to action
c.
based on product-related attributes
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 57. 

A positioning statement that reflects a brand’s competitive advantage but does not motivate consumers to action ____.
a.
is a winner
b.
is a loser
c.
promotes competitors
d.
is “swimming up the river”
e.
is adequate
 

 58. 

A positioning statement that motivates consumers to action but does not reflect a competitive advantage for the brand ____.
a.
is a winner
b.
promotes competitors
c.
is a loser
d.
is “swimming up the river”
e.
is effective
 

 59. 

A brand’s image consists of types, favorability, strength, and uniqueness of ____.
a.
benefits
b.
attributes
c.
associations
d.
perceptions
e.
features
 

 60. 

A brand positioned in terms of ____ needs attempts to provide solutions to consumers’ current consumption-related problems or potential problems by communicating that the brand possesses specific benefits capable of solving those problems.
a.
experiential
b.
symbolic
c.
functional
d.
rational
e.
emotional
 

 61. 

Sun Microsystems recently introduced a new desktop computer. The headline of their two-page advertisement in Business Week reads, “The World’s Most Powerful Desktop for the Price of a PC.” This statement is an appeal to a consumer’s ____.
a.
emotional needs
b.
symbolic needs
c.
qualitative needs
d.
functional needs
e.
experiential needs
 

 62. 

Which of the following is not an appeal to functional needs?
a.
A European automobile is promoted as being safer than other models.
b.
A Japanese automobile is promoted as providing the consumer with a special feeling.
c.
A dishwasher is advertised as having a five-year warranty.
d.
A direct marketer of apparel items claims his polo shirts are made of the finest Egyptian cotton.
e.
A software program promotes the fact that consumers will be protected from computer viruses.
 

 63. 

Marketers of ____ frequently appeal to symbolic needs.
a.
beauty products
b.
jewelry
c.
alcoholic beverages
d.
cigarettes
e.
all of the above
 

 64. 

An ad for a hair-coloring brand features a famous actress telling potential customers that they should use the relatively costly brand “because you’re worth it.” This brand’s concept is aimed at consumers' ____ needs.
a.
functional
b.
symbolic
c.
experiential
d.
hedonic
e.
ego
 

 65. 

Product design, color, and size are all examples of ____.
a.
non-product-related attributes
b.
product benefits
c.
basic consumer needs
d.
product-related attributes
e.
product imagery
 

 66. 

Revising a brand’s positioning is known as ____.
a.
refocusing
b.
realigning
c.
repositioning
d.
shifting
e.
innovating
 

 67. 

According to the HEM, consumer behavior is seen as ____.
a.
rational
b.
highly cognitive
c.
emotional
d.
systematic
e.
reasoned
 

 68. 

Which of the following is a stage in the Consumer Processing Model (CPM)?
a.
exposure
b.
attention
c.
comprehension
d.
agreement
e.
all of the above
 

 69. 

What is the first step in the Consumer Processing Model (CPM)?
a.
exposure
b.
attention
c.
comprehension
d.
agreement
e.
retention
 

 70. 

Cognitive psychologists consider which type of memory to be a virtual storehouse of unlimited information?
a.
sensory stores
b.
short-term memory
c.
working memory
d.
long-term memory
e.
accessible memory
 

 71. 

Changes in the context or organization of information in consumers’ long-term memories is known as ____.
a.
perception
b.
comprehension
c.
learning
d.
exposure
e.
attention
 

 72. 

Which approach emphasizes nonverbal content or emotionally provocative words and is intended to generate images, fantasies, and positive emotions and feelings?
a.
Consumer Processing Model (CPM)
b.
Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM)
c.
Hedonic, Experiential Model (HEM)
d.
Dual-coding Model (DCM)
e.
Feel-Do-Think Model (FDT)
 

 73. 

Objective setting and budgeting are ____ marcom decisions.
a.
fundamental
b.
implementation
c.
short-term
d.
long-term
e.
primary
 

 74. 

Which of the following is NOT a marcom implementation decision?
a.
budgeting
b.
choice of messages
c.
media
d.
mixture of marcom elements
e.
achievement of momentum
 

 75. 

The hierarchy-of-effects metaphor implies that for marketing communications to be successful, the various marcom elements must ____.
a.
encourage consumers to discuss the advertisement
b.
create brand loyalty for the product
c.
advance consumers through a series of psychological stages
d.
have the objective of creating brand awareness
e.
encourage consumers to purchase the product
 

 76. 

Which is the top rung on the hierarchy of marcom effects?
a.
awareness
b.
beliefs
c.
attitudes
d.
expectations
e.
brand loyalty
 

 77. 

Which marcom tool is best at encouraging trial purchases?
a.
advertising
b.
personal selling
c.
public relations
d.
sales promotion
e.
point-of-purchase displays
 

 78. 

Which of the following is a requirement for setting marcom objectives?
a.
Objectives must include a precise statement of who, what, and when.
b.
Objectives must be qualitative.
c.
Objectives must be broad in scope.
d.
Objectives must be long-term.
e.
Objectives must be short-term.
 

 79. 

A certain brand of hand lotion commands 7 percent of the market for this product category. To increase the brand’s market share, a new advertising campaign is formulated with the following objective: “Within the next six months, our objective is to increase the brand’s market share from 7 percent to 40 percent.” This objective suffers from being ____.
a.
imprecise
b.
nonmeasurable
c.
general
d.
unrealistic
e.
qualitative
 

 80. 

A manufacturer of consumer goods has stated the advertising and sales promotion objective is to increase retail distribution by 25 percent while at the same time has reduced the sales force size by 20 percent. This objective suffers from ____.
a.
not being quantitative and measurable
b.
not being internally consistent
c.
being too specific
d.
expecting too small of a change
e.
not being clear
 

 81. 

John is the marcom manager at a major consumer packaged goods manufacturer. He feels that marcom objectives should be stated in terms of sales or market share gains and that failure to do so is a cop-out. Which view is John espousing?
a.
traditional view
b.
common view
c.
heretical view
d.
revolutionary view
e.
controversial view
 

 82. 

In terms of profitability, investing in advertising can be justified only if the incremental revenue generated from the advertising effort exceeds the increase in the ____.
a.
production expense
b.
operational expense
c.
discretionary expense
d.
advertising expense
e.
committed expense
 

 83. 

The ____ function refers to the relationship between money invested in advertising and the response, or output, of that investment in terms of revenue generated.
a.
sales response
b.
advertising response
c.
sales-to-advertising response
d.
advertising-to-sales response
e.
marcom response
 

 84. 

Which of the following is NOT a marcom budgeting method?
a.
percentage-of sales method
b.
objective-and-task method
c.
competitive parity method
d.
affordability method
e.
communication-based method
 

 85. 

The criticism that the percentage-of-sales budgeting technique is not logical is based on the idea that ____.
a.
sales volume cannot be estimated accurately
b.
it results in excessive amounts of funding being invested in advertising
c.
it confuses objectives with goals
d.
it reverses the true functional relationship between advertising and sales
e.
advertising effectiveness cannot be measured
 

 86. 

Which is generally regarded as the most sensible and defendable advertising budgeting method?
a.
percentage-of-sales method
b.
objective-and-task method
c.
competitive parity method
d.
affordability method
e.
comparative method
 

 87. 

The advertising budget procedure used most frequently is the ____ method.
a.
percentage-of-sales
b.
arbitrary allocation
c.
marginal cost
d.
competitive parity
e.
objective-and-task
 

 88. 

Which budgeting method sets the budget by examining what competitors are doing?
a.
percentage-of-sales method
b.
objective-and-task method
c.
competitive parity method
d.
affordability method
e.
comparative method
 

 89. 

When a product has a relatively high share of market and the competitor has a high share of voice, it is best to ____.
a.
increase advertising expenditures
b.
decrease advertising expenditures
c.
cut prices
d.
aggressively attack the competitor
e.
increase prices
 

 90. 

The encoding variability hypothesis contends that people's memories for information are enhanced when ____.
a.
humor is used in the advertisements
b.
the brand is advertised with varied messages or in multiple media
c.
there is comparative advertising
d.
price is stressed in the advertisements
e.
fear appeals are used
 

 91. 

In the ____ method, only the funds that remain after budgeting for everything else are spent on advertising.
a.
competitive parity
b.
affordability
c.
objective-and-task
d.
arbitrary allocation
e.
percentage-of-sales
 

 92. 

____ is a paid, mediated form of communication from an identifiable source, designed to persuade the receiver to take some action, now or in the future.
a.
Public relations
b.
Advertising
c.
Communications
d.
Marketing
e.
Marcom
 

 93. 

Over half of world-wide ad spending takes place in which country?
a.
United States
b.
Canada
c.
China
d.
Germany
e.
Japan
 

 94. 

Which product category has the highest average advertising-to-sales ratio?
a.
automobiles
b.
computers and software
c.
food
d.
personal care items
e.
drugs
 

 95. 

Which is NOT a function performed by advertising?
a.
persuading
b.
reminding
c.
adding value
d.
assisting production
e.
informing
 

 96. 

____ is the process of creating ad messages, selecting media in which to place the ads, and measuring the effects of the advertising efforts.
a.
Marketing management
b.
Advertising management
c.
Marcom management
d.
Promotion management
e.
Advertising
 

 97. 

Rick’s job at a major consumer goods manufacturer is to oversee the process of setting advertising objectives, devising budgets, message creation, and determining media strategy. Rick is involved in ____.
a.
formulating advertising strategy
b.
implementing advertising strategy
c.
account management
d.
marketing management
e.
implementing marketing strategy
 

 98. 

____ deals with the tactical, day-to-day activities that must be performed to carry out an advertising campaign.
a.
Marketing management
b.
Advertising management
c.
Advertising strategy formulation
d.
Advertising strategy implementation
e.
Measuring effectiveness
 

 99. 

Gwen works at a consumer-goods manufacturer and deals with the tactical, day-to-day activities that must be performed to carry out an advertising campaign. Gwen is involved in ____.
a.
formulating advertising strategy
b.
implementing advertising strategy
c.
account management
d.
marketing management
e.
formulating marketing strategy
 

 100. 

The ____ are involved in tactical decision making and day-to-day contact with brand managers and other client personnel.
a.
account executives
b.
management supervisors
c.
assistant supervisors
d.
product managers
e.
line managers
 

 101. 

Message strategies and decisions are most often the joint enterprise of the companies that advertise and their ____.
a.
advertising agencies
b.
marketing departments
c.
advertising departments
d.
promotion departments
e.
communication consultants
 

 102. 

One option for an organization wishing to advertise is to recruit the services of a variety of firms with particular specialties in distinct aspects of advertising.  These firms are called ____.
a.
specialty firms
b.
boutiques
c.
cafeteria agencies
d.
full-service agencies
e.
buffet agencies
 

 103. 

A full-service advertising agency ____.
a.
necessitates employing an advertising staff and absorbing the overhead required to maintain the staff's operations
b.
is unprofitable unless a company does a large and continuous amount of advertising
c.
has the advantage of complete control over the advertising function
d.
perform all the basic functions of advertising for a client
e.
does not perform other marcom functions, such as sales promotion and publicity
 

 104. 

Which of the following is a basic function performed by full-service advertising agencies?
a.
creative services
b.
media services
c.
research services
d.
account management
e.
all of the above
 

 105. 

Which of the following is a form of advertising agency compensation?
a.
commissions from media
b.
labor-based fee system
c.
outcome-based programs
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 106. 

When firms choose to reduce advertising expenditures if a brand is performing well or during periods of economic recession, this is referred to as ____.
a.
disinvesting
b.
disintermediation
c.
divesting
d.
discharging
e.
harvesting
 

 107. 

In a situation where demand is more advertising elastic than price elastic it is advisable to ____.
a.
maintain the status quo
b.
build image via increased advertising
c.
grow volume via price discounting
d.
increase advertising and/or discount prices
e.
decrease advertising and discount prices
 

 108. 

Which of the following is a feature of creative ads?
a.
novelty
b.
appropriateness
c.
intensity
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 109. 

One facet of ad creativity, appropriateness, means ____.
a.
that an advertisement does not offend the target audience
b.
that an advertisement wins creativity awards from advertising trade associations
c.
that an advertisement offers a useful solution to a marketing problem
d.
the methods, techniques, and copy are novel for the product category
e.
that it is typical of advertisements for that product category
 

 110. 

Advertisers can get people to care about their brands by appealing to ____ that are relevant to the product category in which the advertised brand competes.
a.
benefits
b.
emotions
c.
motivations
d.
rational thoughts
e.
behaviors
 

 111. 

The generic and preemptive creative strategies are ____ strategies.
a.
functionally-oriented
b.
symbolically-oriented
c.
experientially-oriented
d.
category-dominance
e.
category-oriented
 

 112. 

In which creative strategy does an advertiser make a superiority claim based on a unique product attribute that represents a meaningful, distinctive consumer benefit?
a.
unique selling proposition
b.
brand image
c.
resonance
d.
emotional
e.
generic
 

 113. 

Which creative strategy does not focus on product claims or brand images but rather seeks to present circumstances or situations that find counterparts in the real or imagine experiences of the target audience, attempting to match “patterns” in an advertisement with the target audience’s stored experiences?
a.
unique selling proposition
b.
resonance
c.
generic
d.
emotional
e.
preemptive
 

 114. 

The generic creative strategy is most appropriate for a company that ____.
a.
has a lower price than their major competitor
b.
has a higher price than their major competitor
c.
dominates a product category
d.
has a major competitive advantage over their major competitors
e.
sells a high percentage of their products to foreign markets
 

 115. 

The ____ creative strategy is employed when an advertiser makes a generic-type claim but does so with an assertion of superiority.
a.
preemptive
b.
unique selling proposition
c.
positioning
d.
resonance
e.
emotional
 

 116. 

Which of the following is NOT a universal value?
a.
stimulation
b.
security
c.
feminism
d.
conformity
e.
benevolence
 

 117. 

A TV commercial for a sports car marketed to young people emphasizes pleasure and freedom as end levels. The advertised car is shown delivering these end levels when the car is transformed into a magic chariot and its young driver is carried away into a fantasyland. In terms of the MECCAS model, the magic chariot technique represents the commercial’s ____.
a.
driving force
b.
leverage point
c.
message elements
d.
consequences
e.
terminal values
 

 118. 

Which form of advertising focuses not on specific brands but on a corporation’s overall image or on economic or social issues relevant to the corporation’s interests?
a.
advocacy advertising
b.
corporate advertising
c.
non-profit advertising
d.
primary advertising
e.
secondary advertising
 

 119. 

The appropriate influence strategy depends both on ____.
a.
brand characteristics and positioning
b.
chosen media and messag4e appeal
c.
consumer benefits sought and client requirements
d.
information requirements and consumer involvement level
e.
consumer characteristics and brand strengths
 

 120. 

What can marketing communicators do to enhance consumers’ motivation to process brand information?
a.
enhance the relevance of the brand to the self
b.
enhance curiosity about the brand
c.
repeat brand information
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 121. 

Evelyn is the advertising director of a chain of health clubs. She is putting together an advertisement, and she wants to enhance the consumers' opportunity to encode information. The best way to accomplish this objective would be to ____.
a.
repeat the ad on multiple occasions
b.
use loud music
c.
use celebrities
d.
use colorful ads
e.
employ verbal framing
 

 122. 

Marketers can enhance the consumers' opportunity to reduce processing time by ____.
a.
appealing to hedonistic needs
b.
heightening ad complexity
c.
repeating brand information
d.
creating gestalt processing
e.
employing verbal framing
 

 123. 

Typical-person endorsements are more effective when ____.
a.
the commercial is longer
b.
more than one person is portrayed
c.
older people are portrayed
d.
the commercial is aired during the news
e.
there is humor in the advertisements
 

 124. 

The act of portraying more than one typical-person in an advertisement increases the likelihood of ____.
a.
generating higher levels of message involvement
b.
generating greater message-related thoughts
c.
favorably influencing attitudes
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 125. 

Extensive research has demonstrated that the two basic attributes contributing to an endorser's effectiveness are ____.
a.
intelligence and credibility
b.
attractiveness and intelligence
c.
attractiveness and credibility
d.
personality and intelligence
e.
personality and attractiveness
 

 126. 

Which of the following is true regarding the source attribute of credibility?
a.
Credibility and attractiveness are basically different labels for the same concept.
b.
A credible source influences receivers’ attitudes through a process of identification.
c.
There are two important properties of endorser credibility - expertise and attractiveness.
d.
There are two important properties of endorser credibility - expertise and trustworthiness.
e.
There are three important subcomponents of credibility - attractiveness, respect, and similarity.
 

 127. 

Laurie was influenced to purchase a set of children’s books and tapes from an infomercial that used Angela Lansbury, an actress that played a murder mystery writer in a television series called Murder She Wrote, as the endorser. Actually, Ms. Lansbury presented the entire sales pitch and discussed the merits of the product. Laurie perceived Ms. Lansbury to be honest and believable. Which attribute of endorser credibility does this represent?
a.
trustworthiness
b.
expertise
c.
similarity
d.
familiarity
e.
liking
 

 128. 

____ represents the degree to which an endorser matches an audience in terms of characteristics pertinent to the endorsement relationship - age, gender, ethnicity, etc.
a.
Expertise
b.
Trustworthiness
c.
Respect
d.
Similarity
e.
Liking
 

 129. 

Which of the following factors is important when selecting celebrity endorsers?
a.
the ease/difficulty of working with the celebrity
b.
the match between the celebrity and the audience
c.
the cost of the celebrity
d.
the likelihood of the celebrity getting into trouble
e.
all of the above
 

 130. 

Appeals to fears in advertising identify the negative consequences of ____.
a.
not using the advertised brand
b.
engaging in unsafe behavior
c.
spending too much money for a product
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 131. 

According to the theory of psychological reactance, ____.
a.
people react against any efforts to reduce their freedoms of choice
b.
consumer behavior is seen as emotional
c.
consumer behavior is seen as highly cognitive
d.
people satisfy primary needs before acquired needs
e.
the personal relevance that a communication has for a receiver is a critical determinant of the extent and form of persuasion
 

 132. 

Appeals to guilt are ineffective if advertisements containing guilt appeals ____.
a.
lack credibility
b.
are perceived as having manipulative intentions
c.
are based on emotion
d.
a and b
e.
a, b, and c
 

 133. 

The manager of the Fifth String, a music shop, notices that young male customers often loiter in front of sexy posters of female vocalists. What role does sex appeal play in this instance?
a.
enhances recall
b.
attracts and holds attention
c.
elicits emotional identification
d.
acts as subliminal cue
e.
encourages larger purchases
 

 134. 

Music has been shown to be effective ____.
a.
more often when a fast-pace is used, rather than a slow-pace
b.
in influencing product preferences
c.
in establishing trust
d.
more often when a slow-pace is used, rather than a fast-pace
e.
in influencing actual sales
 

 135. 

Which communication function do many advertising practitioners and scholars think music performs?
a.
attracting attention
b.
putting consumers in a positive mood
c.
making consumers more receptive to message arguments
d.
communicating meanings about advertised products
e.
all of the above
 

 136. 

The practice in which advertisers directly or indirectly compare their products against competitive offerings, typically claiming that the promoted item is superior in one or several important purchase considerations, is called ____.
a.
competitive advertising
b.
head-to-head advertising
c.
comparative advertising
d.
frontal-attack advertising
e.
attack advertising
 

 137. 

The demand for ____ that is prevalent throughout business necessitates that ads be tested before they are placed in media, and then again during or after the period in which they have been printed or broadcast.
a.
creativity
b.
novelty
c.
credibility
d.
accountability
e.
accuracy
 

 138. 

A good copytesting system needs to provide measurements that are ____.
a.
relevant to the advertising objectives
b.
relevant to the advertising budget
c.
relevant to the advertising media
d.
relevant to the advertising script
e.
relevant to the competitive environment
 

 139. 

Which of the following are the two general forms of message research?
a.
primary and secondary
b.
valid and reliable
c.
pretesting and posttesting
d.
formal and informal
e.
qualitative and quantitative
 

 140. 

A print ad for a new brand of body lotion refers to it as a “peach.” In this regard, “peach” is a(n) ____.
a.
metaphor
b.
allegory
c.
simile
d.
representation
e.
elicitation
 

 141. 

Which of the following is a category of message research?
a.
recognition and recall
b.
physiological arousal
c.
persuasion
d.
sales responses
e.
all of the above
 

 142. 

Starch Readership, Bruzzone tests, and Burke day-after recall tests are techniques for measuring ____.
a.
recognition and emotions
b.
recognition and recall
c.
emotions and recall
d.
emotions and responses
e.
persuasion
 

 143. 

Bruzzone Research Company provides information on consumer recognition of ____.
a.
radio commercials
b.
magazine advertisements
c.
newspaper advertisements
d.
outdoor advertisements
e.
television commercials
 

 144. 

Using self-report measurement, a researcher uses cartoon-like characters to represent different emotions and emotional states, and asks respondents to select the cartoon character depicting the emotional state that best reflects their emotional reaction to an advertisement.  This is an example of ____ self-reports.
a.
verbal
b.
projective
c.
audio
d.
visual
e.
psychological
 

 145. 

In the case of greater pupil dilation, responses to specific elements in an advertisement are used to indicate ____.
a.
negative reaction
b.
positive reaction
c.
thoughts generated
d.
indifferent reaction
e.
intense reaction
 

 146. 

The ____ method tests television commercials in consumers’ homes.
a.
Next*TV
b.
TiVo
c.
Behavioral
d.
Sensory
e.
Visual
 

 147. 

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the in-home videotape methodology used in the Next*TV method?
a.
In-home exposure makes it possible to measure advertising effectiveness in a natural environment.
b.
By embedding test advertisements in actual programming content along with other advertisements, it is possible to assess the ability of TV commercials to break through the clutter, gain the viewer’s attention, and influence message recallability and persuadability.
c.
Be measuring recall one day after exposure, it can be determined how well tested commercials are remembered after this delay period.
d.
The videotape technology allows the use of representative national sampling.
e.
By providing a standardized measure of persuasion, national norms can be determined.
 

 148. 

The key issue in the research on the predictive ability of ARS persuasion scores was whether these scores accurately predict the magnitude of ____ gain (or loss) following advertising.
a.
share-of-voice
b.
market-share
c.
return on investment
d.
audience
e.
consumer awareness
 

 149. 

IRI’s BehaviorScan procedure enables which types of testing of television commercial effectiveness?
a.
pretests and posttests
b.
weight tests and copy tests
c.
recall tests and recognition tests
d.
awareness tests and persuasion tests
e.
persuasion tests and purchase tests
 

 150. 

A conclusion drawn from ARS’ testing of various commercials for a Campbell’s Soup Company brand (i.e., V8 vegetable juice) about the functioning and effectiveness of advertising states that ____.
a.
ad weight is positively related to sales regardless of the advertising content
b.
ad copy does not have to be distinctive
c.
the selling power of advertising wears out over time
d.
rational appeals are more effective than emotional appeals
e.
television ads are more effective than radio ads
 



 
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